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Financial Fair Play


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Why the hell do Liverpool have more TV than anyone else?

Mostly due to them doing better than expected in the league and also with Sky wanting to ensure they got more viewers in for the 'title' run-in by putting most of their games on tv for the second half of the season

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Mostly due to them doing better than expected in the league and also with Sky wanting to ensure they got more viewers in for the 'title' run-in by putting most of their games on tv for the second half of the season

Liverpool won't be in the title race this year though. Surely if it was based on that City would get the most games?
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How do PSG and United get more then us since we made it farther?

3 components - TV money, performance prize money and matchday revenue (advertisements, tickets, misc. items like matchday programmes and refreshments).

Performance prize money (based on wins and how far you progress), is distributed on this formula :

Breakdown-of-Champions-League-Performanc

TV money is paid by the national broadcaster (BT Sport in the UK) based on where the teams finished in the league the season before, i.e 2012-13. See this :

4.-Market-Pool-Figures.jpg

France probably distributes the money in a different manner, hence the bigger share.

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France probably distributes the money in a different manner, hence the bigger share.

Yep, that's right. France didn't really have any other interesting teams aside from PSG so naturally they get the lion's share from the French broadcasting revenue.

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3 components - TV money, performance prize money and matchday revenue (advertisements, tickets, misc. items like matchday programmes and refreshments).

Performance prize money (based on wins and how far you progress), is distributed on this formula :

Breakdown-of-Champions-League-Performanc

TV money is paid by the national broadcaster (BT Sport in the UK) based on where the teams finished in the league the season before, i.e 2012-13. See this :

4.-Market-Pool-Figures.jpg

France probably distributes the money in a different manner, hence the bigger share.

not sure who worked out the %...

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Correct me if i am wrong.

I get that retrospective investigations can happen in the following scenario, but is this a loophole, possibly?

Lets say Man city wants to get a 40 million player, but cant because of FFP.

So a Non UEFA team, such as New York City, which is owned by the same group, can they buy that player and loan him for very basic amounts to city?

I know it will show up as a loss to NYC, but hypothetically, is that something than clubs can do to get around it??

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Correct me if i am wrong.

I get that retrospective investigations can happen in the following scenario, but is this a loophole, possibly?

Lets say Man city wants to get a 40 million player, but cant because of FFP.

So a Non UEFA team, such as New York City, which is owned by the same group, can they buy that player and loan him for very basic amounts to city?

I know it will show up as a loss to NYC, but hypothetically, is that something than clubs can do to get around it??

Yeah potentially

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